Orthogonathic and Reconstrictive Surgery → Dentist

Q-01.During the removal of a torus palatinus it was noticed that a portion bone is fractured. One would expect;

An opening into the nasal cavity

An opening into the maxillary antrum

Vertical fracture of maxilla

Horizontal fracture of maxilla

Correct! Wrong!

Q-02.Acrylic splints are desirable during post operative phase of management in which of following procedures;

Mandibular alveoloplasty

Torus palatinus reduction

Mental tubercle reduction

Excision of labial epulis fissuratum

Correct! Wrong!

Q-03.A female patient requiring mandibular advancement by 8.0 mm. What is the procedure of choice?

Sagittal split osteotomy with mandibular

Oblique sub condylar osteotomy

Extraoral vertical ramus osteotomy

None

Correct! Wrong!

Q-04.Rate of distraction, in a case of distraction osteosynthesis?

0.5 mm/day

1.0 mm/day

1.5 mm/day

2.0 mm/day

Correct! Wrong!

Q-05.During exodontia the force applied firstly in which direction?

Apical

Buccal

Lingual

Coronal

Correct! Wrong!

Q-06.The latency period after mandibular distraction is?

5 days

15 days

1 months

2 months

Correct! Wrong!

Q-07.Inverted-L shaped osteotomy, what is true?

Used for treating mandibular retrognathism

Done on the mandible portion not involving the occlusion

Used in mandibular prognathism cases

To correct maxillary deformities

Correct! Wrong!

Q-08.Latency period in distraction osteosynthesis is defined as?

Time period between surgical osteotomy & starting of distraction

Time period between starting of distraction too the competition of distraction

Time period for completion of distraction process

Time period between distraction and functional loading of the area

Correct! Wrong!

Q-09.Intra oral vertical ramus osteotomy is done for?

Anterior open bite

Mandibular advancement

Mandibular setback

Maxillary deformity

Correct! Wrong!

Q-10.Anterior open bite and maxillary constriction is caused by;

Thumb sucking

Nail biting

Bruxism

Lip biting

Correct! Wrong!

Q-11.Abbe-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of;

Buccal mucosa

Lip

Tongue

Palate

Correct! Wrong!

Q-12.A patient with class II div I malocclusion is operated for genioplasty his anterior teeth after the operation would be;

In edge to edge bite

Without any change

Having normal overjet of 2 mm

Having no overbite

Correct! Wrong!

Q-13.Jumping genioplasty is a term which connotes;

Movement of chin posteriorly

Double step genioplasty

Single step advancement

Advancement after setback of mandibular body

Correct! Wrong!

Q-14.In a patient with class III facial profile one would think of which type of genioplasty(G)?

Reduction G

Advancement G

Straightening G

Rotational G

Correct! Wrong!

Q-15.Sagittal spilt osteotomy is a procedure carried out for;

Mandibular deformities

Maxillary deformities

Deformities in which occlusion is not involved

Condylar repositioning

Correct! Wrong!

Q-16.Sagittal split osteotomy was first advocated by;

Obwegesser

Dal pont

Wundrer

Moose

Correct! Wrong!

Q-17.A patient reported with class III skeletal deformity the ideal choice would be;

Inverted L osteotomy

Segmental osteotomy

Reverse sagittal split osteotomy

Sagittal split osteotomy

Correct! Wrong!

Q-18.The basic advantage of sagittal split osteotomy is/are;

It is carried out intraorally as well as extraorally

No bone grafting is required when defect is less than 8 mm

There are no chances of paresthesia

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q-19.Apertognathia is a condition in which there is;

Retrogenia

Maxillary hypoplasia

Open bite deformity

Maxillary and mandibular prognathism only

Correct! Wrong!

Q-20.During genioplasty there are chances of injuring;

Inferior alveolar nerve

Marginal mandibular nerve

Mental nerve

Lingual nerve

Correct! Wrong!

Q-21.Wassmund and Wunderer procedures are;

Mandibular segmental osteotomies

Maxillary segmental osteotomies

Maxillary subapical osteotomies

Multiple subapical osteotomy procedures of maxilla and mandible respectively

Correct! Wrong!

Q-22.In a patient in whom SNA is 82° and SNB is 96° indicates he would require;

Maxillary surgery with setback

Mandibular surgery

Mandibular advancement

Maxillary advancement

Correct! Wrong!

Q-23.Allografts are grafts taken from;

Same species and individuals are generally related

Different species

Same species but individuals are genetically not related

Same species and between genetically identical individuals

Correct! Wrong!

Q-24,White grafts taken from;

Never rejected

Are immunologically biocompatible

Are rejected without evidence of vascularization

Behave in same manner as autogenous grafts

Correct! Wrong!

Q-25.The best bone graft which can be utilised for reconstruction of large mandibular defect is;

Chostochondral graft

Calvarial graft

Iliac crest graft

Metatarsal bone graft

Correct! Wrong!

Q-26.A patient in whom iliac crest graft has been taken for mandibular reconstruction, should be kept till orally postoperatively;

For 6 hours

Till bowel sounds appear

For 12 hours

Till patient is ambulatory

Correct! Wrong!

Q-27.The graft of choice in a 30 year old patient of ameloblastic resection would be;

Free iliac crest graft

Free vascularised iliac crest graft

Medullary bone graft

6th rib

Correct! Wrong!

Q-28.Composite grafts consist of;

Bone only

Medullary bone only

Bone and soft tissue

Particulate bone mixed with resins

Correct! Wrong!

Q-29.Alveoloplasty should be carried out;

When multiple extractions are done in one quadrant

When entire arch extraction is there

To remove undercuts

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q-30.Intercortical alveoloplasty is done by;

Removing margins of cortical plates

Removing interseptal bone entirely and collapsing labial and palatally cortical plates

Removing septa till upper third of socket and compressing the cortical plates

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q-31.The principle problem with tuberosity reduction is;

Poor access

Formation of OAF

Infection

Damage to posterior superior alveolar nerve

Correct! Wrong!

Q-32.The Kazanjian's technique of vestibuloplasty leaves;

Lip surface to reepithelialise

Alveolar surface to reepithelialise

Depth of sulcus periosteum to reepitheliaslise

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q-33.The Lipwitch procedure is used for;

Ridge augmentation

Sulcoplasty

Tuberoplasty

Chiroplasty

Correct! Wrong!

Q-34.When there is high crestal attachment of muscle and tissues the indicated method of vestibuloplasty is;

Kazanjian's

Clark's

Obwegeser's

Howe's lipwitch

Correct! Wrong!

Q-35.Incision for operation of tongue-tie should be placed;

Transversely on lingual frenum

Longitudinally along lingual frenum on both sides

On crest of frenum longitudinally

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Orthogonathic and Reconstrictive Surgery

Q-01.During the removal of a torus palatinus it was noticed that a portion bone is fractured. One would expect;

Q-02.Acrylic splints are desirable during post operative phase of management in which of following procedures;

Q-03.A female patient requiring mandibular advancement by 8.0 mm. What is the procedure of choice?

Q-04.Rate of distraction, in a case of distraction osteosynthesis?

Q-05.During exodontia the force applied firstly in which direction?

Q-06.The latency period after mandibular distraction is?

Q-07.Inverted-L shaped osteotomy, what is true?

Q-08.Latency period in distraction osteosynthesis is defined as?

Q-09.Intra oral vertical ramus osteotomy is done for?

Q-10.Anterior open bite and maxillary constriction is caused by;

Q-11.Abbe-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of;

Q-12.A patient with class II div I malocclusion is operated for genioplasty his anterior teeth after the operation would be;

Q-13.Jumping genioplasty is a term which connotes;

Q-14.In a patient with class III facial profile one would think of which type of genioplasty(G)?

Q-15.Sagittal spilt osteotomy is a procedure carried out for;

Q-16.Sagittal split osteotomy was first advocated by;

Q-17.A patient reported with class III skeletal deformity the ideal choice would be;

Q-18.The basic advantage of sagittal split osteotomy is/are;

Q-19.Apertognathia is a condition in which there is;

Q-20.During genioplasty there are chances of injuring;

Q-21.Wassmund and Wunderer procedures are;

Q-22.In a patient in whom SNA is 82° and SNB is 96° indicates he would require;

Q-23.Allografts are grafts taken from;

Q-24,White grafts taken from;

Q-25.The best bone graft which can be utilised for reconstruction of large mandibular defect is;

Q-26.A patient in whom iliac crest graft has been taken for mandibular reconstruction, should be kept till orally postoperatively;

Q-27.The graft of choice in a 30 year old patient of ameloblastic resection would be;

Q-28.Composite grafts consist of;

Q-29.Alveoloplasty should be carried out;

Q-30.Intercortical alveoloplasty is done by;

Q-31.The principle problem with tuberosity reduction is;

Q-32.The Kazanjian's technique of vestibuloplasty leaves;

Q-33.The Lipwitch procedure is used for;

Q-34.When there is high crestal attachment of muscle and tissues the indicated method of vestibuloplasty is;

Q-35.Incision for operation of tongue-tie should be placed;

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Orthogonathic and Reconstrictive Surgery

Q-01.During the removal of a torus palatinus it was noticed that a portion bone is fractured. One would expect;

Q-02.Acrylic splints are desirable during post operative phase of management in which of following procedures;

Q-03.A female patient requiring mandibular advancement by 8.0 mm. What is the procedure of choice?

Q-04.Rate of distraction, in a case of distraction osteosynthesis?

Q-05.During exodontia the force applied firstly in which direction?

Q-06.The latency period after mandibular distraction is?

Q-07.Inverted-L shaped osteotomy, what is true?

Q-08.Latency period in distraction osteosynthesis is defined as?

Q-09.Intra oral vertical ramus osteotomy is done for?

Q-10.Anterior open bite and maxillary constriction is caused by;

Q-11.Abbe-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of;

Q-12.A patient with class II div I malocclusion is operated for genioplasty his anterior teeth after the operation would be;

Q-13.Jumping genioplasty is a term which connotes;

Q-14.In a patient with class III facial profile one would think of which type of genioplasty(G)?

Q-15.Sagittal spilt osteotomy is a procedure carried out for;

Q-16.Sagittal split osteotomy was first advocated by;

Q-17.A patient reported with class III skeletal deformity the ideal choice would be;

Q-18.The basic advantage of sagittal split osteotomy is/are;

Q-19.Apertognathia is a condition in which there is;

Q-20.During genioplasty there are chances of injuring;

Q-21.Wassmund and Wunderer procedures are;

Q-22.In a patient in whom SNA is 82° and SNB is 96° indicates he would require;

Q-23.Allografts are grafts taken from;

Q-24,White grafts taken from;

Q-25.The best bone graft which can be utilised for reconstruction of large mandibular defect is;

Q-26.A patient in whom iliac crest graft has been taken for mandibular reconstruction, should be kept till orally postoperatively;

Q-27.The graft of choice in a 30 year old patient of ameloblastic resection would be;

Q-28.Composite grafts consist of;

Q-29.Alveoloplasty should be carried out;

Q-30.Intercortical alveoloplasty is done by;

Q-31.The principle problem with tuberosity reduction is;

Q-32.The Kazanjian's technique of vestibuloplasty leaves;

Q-33.The Lipwitch procedure is used for;

Q-34.When there is high crestal attachment of muscle and tissues the indicated method of vestibuloplasty is;

Q-35.Incision for operation of tongue-tie should be placed;

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