Orthodontics Quick Quiz → Dentist

1.Methods of bite opening includes:

Intrusion of posterior teeth and extrusion of anterior teeth

Extrusion of posterior teeth and intrusion of anterior teeth

Mesialisation of posterior teeth

Retroclination of incisors

Lower incisor extraction

Correct! Wrong!

2.Cortical drift is a growth process involving:

Deposition of bone

Resorption of bone

Deposition and resorption

Bone bending

Apposition of bone

Correct! Wrong!

3.The focal film distance for a lateral cephalogram is:

Four feet

Three feet

Five feet

Six feet

Two feet

Correct! Wrong!

4.Moment is defined as:

Force x Distance from centre of rotation

Force x Distance from centre of resistance

Force x Range

Force x Springback

Force x Modulus of elasticity

Correct! Wrong!

5.Minimum anchorage is defined as:

2/3rd of extraction space is utilized by the movement of anchor unit.

½ of the extraction space is utilized by the movement of anchor unit and the remaining ½ by the movement of the moving unit

1/3rd of the extraction space is utilized by the movement of anchor unit

Absolutely no movement of anchor unit

Absolutely no movement of anterior teeth

Correct! Wrong!

6.Classical pattern of extraction in Class II camouflage is:

Extraction of upper 1st premolars and lower canines

Extraction of upper 1st premolars and lower 2nd premolars

Extraction of all 2nd premolars

Extraction of upper 2nd premolars and lower 1st premolars

Extraction of all 1s t molars

Correct! Wrong!

7.Frontal cephalogram is used to:

Assess facial symmetry

Overjet

Dental compensation in sagital plane

Deep bite

Open bite

Correct! Wrong!

8.Natal teeth are defined as:

Teeth present at the time of birth

Teeth erupting in the 2nd-3rd month

Teeth erupting between 6 months to 2 year

Teeth erupting after 1 year of age

Teeth erupting after 2 years of age

Correct! Wrong!

9.1st order bends are:

Tipping bends

Torque bends

In and out bends

Anchorage bends

Up and down bends

Correct! Wrong!

10. Cleft lip and palate patient often requires expansion. Appliance of choice in such cases is:

Hyrax appliance

Hass appliance

Cap splint type of expansion appliance

SARPE

Spring jet

Correct! Wrong!

11. The most common sequence of eruption of permanent dentition in upper arch is:

6-1-2-3-4-5-7

6-1-2-4-3-5-7

6-1-2-5-4-3-7

6-1-3-2-4-5-7

6-2-3-4-5-1-7

Correct! Wrong!

12. Face mask is primarily used to produce:

Dorsal effect

AP effect

Ventral effect

Transverse effect

Vertical effect

Correct! Wrong!

13. Relapse in rotated teeth can be avoided:

By CSF

By frenectomy

By maintaining integrity of arch

By extraction of retained teeth

By scaling

Correct! Wrong!

14. Extraction is mandatory in the treatment of crowding if crowding is:

Less than 4mm

More than 4mm and less than 9mm

More than 10mm

More than 4mm but O/J more than 6mm

More than 4mm with –ive O/J

Correct! Wrong!

15. Decompensation is done as part of:

Conventional orthodontics

Pre-surgical orthodontics

Camouflage treatment

Surgical camouflage

Interceptive orthodontics

Correct! Wrong!

16. ANB angle is used to assess:

Sagittal jaw discrepancy

Vertical jaw discrepancy

Soft tissue profile

Dental pattern

Crowding

Correct! Wrong!

17. Anterior Boltan ratio is:

91.3%

100%

61.7%

82.3%

77.2%

Correct! Wrong!

18. Flush Terminal Plane means:

Distal surface of upper ‘c’ flushes with distal surface of lower ‘c’

Distal surface of upper ‘e’ flushes with distal surface of lower ‘e’

Mesial surface of upper ‘e’ flushes with distal surface of lower ‘e’

Distal surface of upper ‘e’ flushes with mesial surface of lower ‘e’

Mesial surface of upper‘d’ flushes with medial surface of lower‘d’

Correct! Wrong!

19. Sunday bite is defined as:

Habitual forward posturing of mandible to Class I

Posturing of mandible to Class III due to a premature contact

Posturing the mandible laterally to establish maximum cuspation in bilaterally narrow maxilla cases

Posturing the mandible back to Class II, when actually in Class I

Under closure of jaw

Correct! Wrong!

20. Early loss of upper ‘e’ leads to anchorage loss of upper 1st molar as:

Mesial tipping, mesio-buccal rotation and distalisation

Mesial tipping, mesio-palatal rotation and mesialization

Distal tipping, mesio-palatal rotation and mesialization

Distal tipping, mesio-palatal rotation and distalisation

Mesial tipping, buccal flaring and mesialization

Correct! Wrong!

21. Extraction pattern for Class II surgical cases is:

Upper 4′s only

Lower 5′s only

Lower 4′s only

Lower canine

Upper 4′s and lower 5′s

Correct! Wrong!

22. Dental compensation in skeletal Class III cases is:

Proclined lower incisors only

Retroclined lower incisors

Proclined lower and retroclined upper incisors

Retroclined lower and Proclined upper incisors

Proclined lower and Proclined upper incisors

Correct! Wrong!

23. Optimal force for Bodily movement is:

50-75 gm force per tooth

Less than 50 gm force per tooth

15-25 gm force per tooth

200-400 gm force per tooth

75-125 gm force per tooth

Correct! Wrong!

24. In RPE activation is done:

Once weekly

Twice weekly

Twice daily.

Once monthly

Twice monthly

Correct! Wrong!

25. Most ectopically erupted tooth is:

Upper 1s t molar

Upper canine

Lower 2nd molar

Lower incisor

Lower 1st premolar

Correct! Wrong!

26. Prognathic profile is seen in patients with:

Mandibular hypoplasia

Skeletal Class II malocclusion

Skeletal Class III malocclusion

Pier-Robbins syndrome

Stickler’s syndrome

Correct! Wrong!

27. Unfavorable mixed dentition analysis is an indication for:

Space maintenance and space regaining

Space maintenance and space supervision

Space regaining and gross discrepancy cases

Space supervision and gross discrepancy cases

Space maintenance

Correct! Wrong!

28. Excess in lower anterior Bolton is an indication for:

Build up in upper anteriors

Stripping in lower molars

Stripping in lower premolars

Stripping in upper anteriors

Stripping in lower incisors or lower incisor extraction

Correct! Wrong!

29. Absolute anchorage:

Is provided by ankylosed teeth

Is provided by implants

Is also called Stationary Anchorage

Means Zero Anchorage Loss

Means Zero Anchorage Burn

Correct! Wrong!

30. Pseudo-Class III is defined as:

Habitual forward posturing of mandible to Class I

Posturing of mandible to Class II due to a premature contact

Posturing the mandible laterally to establish maximum cuspation in bilaterally narrow maxilla cases

Posturing the mandible back to Class II, when actually in Class I

Underclosure of mouth

Correct! Wrong!

31. Bite of accommodation means:

Habitual forward posturing of mandible to Class I

Posturing of mandible to Class III due to a premature contact

Posturing the mandible laterally to establish maximum cuspation in bilaterally narrow maxilla cases

Posturing the mandible back to Class II, when actually in Class I

Underclosure of mouth

Correct! Wrong!

32. Method of Intra-oral anchorage reinforcement is:

Headgear

Face mask

Chin cup

Nance appliance

Reverse Pull Headgear

Correct! Wrong!

33. Mesiodens is a supernumerary tooth:

Between central incisor and lateral incisor

Between central incisors

Extra canine

Extra pre-molar

Extra-molar

Correct! Wrong!

34. Tissue borne RPE appliance is:

Hyrax appliance

Hass appliance

Quadhelix

NiTi expander

Spring jet

Correct! Wrong!

35. Aspirin is a teratogen for:

Cleft lip and palate

Crouzen syndrome

Apert’s syndrome

Acromegaly

Hemifacial microsomia

Correct! Wrong!

36. Pierre-Robbins Syndrome is characterized by:

Large mandible and cleft palate

Short maxilla and cleft palate

Large maxilla and cleft palate

Short mandible and cleft palate

Short mid-facial region and cleft palate

Correct! Wrong!

37. Muscle involved in torticollis is:

Temporalis

Lateral pterygoid

Medial pterygoid

Zygomaticus major

Sternocleido-mastoid

Correct! Wrong!

38. Class II elastics are given from:

Upper canine to upper 1s t molar

Lower canine to lower 1s t molar

Upper canine to lower 1s t molar

Lower canine to upper 1s t molar

Between upper and lower incisors

Correct! Wrong!

39. Co-Cr shift is normal:

1-2mm

2-3mm

3-4mm

3-5mm

4-5mm

Correct! Wrong!

40. Canine guided occlusion means:

Canine to canine contact on balancing side, no contact on working side

Contact on incisors

Three point contact

Canine to canine contact on working and balancing side

Canine to canine contact on working side, no contact on balancing side

Correct! Wrong!

41. RPE (evidence of mid sagittal suture break) is assessed by:

OPG

Lateral cephalogram

Upper occlusal radiograph

Lower occlusal

Peri-apical

Correct! Wrong!

42. Well aligned deciduous dentition is an indication for:

Potential crowding

Potential spacing

Disto-occlusion

Mesio-occlusion

Well-aligned permanent teeth

Correct! Wrong!

43. Most commonly congenitally missing tooth is:

Upper lateral incisors

Upper 1s t premolar

Upper central incisor

Lower lateral incisor

Lower canines

Correct! Wrong!

44. Esthetic brackets are:

Metal brackets

Steel brackets

Ceramic brackets

NiTi brackets

Co-Cr brackets

Correct! Wrong!

45. Retention in removable appliances is obtained by:

Z-spring

Adams clasps

Expansion screw

Labial bow

Retraction spring

Correct! Wrong!

Orthodontics Quick Quiz

1.Methods of bite opening includes:

2.Cortical drift is a growth process involving:

3.The focal film distance for a lateral cephalogram is:

4.Moment is defined as:

5.Minimum anchorage is defined as:

6.Classical pattern of extraction in Class II camouflage is:

7.Frontal cephalogram is used to:

8.Natal teeth are defined as:

9.1st order bends are:

10. Cleft lip and palate patient often requires expansion. Appliance of choice in such cases is:

11. The most common sequence of eruption of permanent dentition in upper arch is:

12. Face mask is primarily used to produce:

13. Relapse in rotated teeth can be avoided:

14. Extraction is mandatory in the treatment of crowding if crowding is:

15. Decompensation is done as part of:

16. ANB angle is used to assess:

17. Anterior Boltan ratio is:

18. Flush Terminal Plane means:

19. Sunday bite is defined as:

20. Early loss of upper ‘e’ leads to anchorage loss of upper 1st molar as:

21. Extraction pattern for Class II surgical cases is:

22. Dental compensation in skeletal Class III cases is:

23. Optimal force for Bodily movement is:

24. In RPE activation is done:

25. Most ectopically erupted tooth is:

26. Prognathic profile is seen in patients with:

27. Unfavorable mixed dentition analysis is an indication for:

28. Excess in lower anterior Bolton is an indication for:

29. Absolute anchorage:

30. Pseudo-Class III is defined as:

31. Bite of accommodation means:

32. Method of Intra-oral anchorage reinforcement is:

33. Mesiodens is a supernumerary tooth:

34. Tissue borne RPE appliance is:

35. Aspirin is a teratogen for:

36. Pierre-Robbins Syndrome is characterized by:

37. Muscle involved in torticollis is:

38. Class II elastics are given from:

39. Co-Cr shift is normal:

40. Canine guided occlusion means:

41. RPE (evidence of mid sagittal suture break) is assessed by:

42. Well aligned deciduous dentition is an indication for:

43. Most commonly congenitally missing tooth is:

44. Esthetic brackets are:

45. Retention in removable appliances is obtained by:

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