Maxillofacial Injuries → Dentist

Q01-When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, to what variable it is related?

Position of strike

Area of strike

Angulation of strike

Location of strike

Correct! Wrong!

Q02-Based on champy's principle of lines of tension and compression, the angle fracture is best treated with?

Compression plate

Fixation with A0 plate

IMF

External pin fixation

Correct! Wrong!

Q03-The treatment of choice in comminuted fracture mandible is?

2.5 mm plate

1.5 mm plate

Dynamic compression plate with eccentric holes

Reconstruction plate with central holes

Correct! Wrong!

Q04-In condylar fracture and bone plate synthesis to counteract the dynamic tension and compression zones, the most acceptable place for plating is?

Plate fixed laterally in neck of condyle

Plate on anterior and posterior border

Plate on posterior border only

Plate on anterior border only

Correct! Wrong!

Q05-Champy's plates are?

Semirigid fixation with monocortical screws

Semirigid fixation with bicortical screws

Rigid fixation with bicortical screws

Rigid fixation with monocortical screws

Correct! Wrong!

Q06-Compression osteosynthesis heals fracture mandible by?

Primary union without callus formation

Secondary union without callus formation

Compression union

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q07-When a mandibular fracture is transferred to an emergency room, under what is mandibular fracture treated?

Primary survey

Secondary survey

Primary survey with IMF

Resuscitation room

Correct! Wrong!

Q08-Most common cause of Pulmonary embolism is?

Thrombophlebitis

End arteritis

Atherosclerosis

Lymphangitis

Correct! Wrong!

Q09-A full thickness wound having length greater than depth caused by a sharp object is described as?

Stab wound

Slash wound

Lacerated wound

Incision wound

Correct! Wrong!

Q10-In lingual splaying of guardman fracture with ORIF, which is the clinical feature?

Increased intercanthal distance

Increased interpupillary distance

Increased gonion-grathion distance

Increased interangular distance

Correct! Wrong!

Q11-In condylar fracture with greater than 5mm overlapping and greater than 37° angulation with fracture segment, what is the line of treatment?

Closed reduction and IMF

ORIF

Soft diet

No treatment

Correct! Wrong!

Q12-In a patient with 15% Blood loss, the immediate management is?

Immediate Blood replacement

Blood transfusion is not required

Aggressive replacement of crystalloid only

Aggressive replacement of crystalloid and Blood

Correct! Wrong!

Q13-In mass casuality cases, the mechanism to sort out patient is?

Treating 1st patients with life threatening condition

Treating patient with higher chances of survival with least available infrastructure

Treating patient with multiple organ failure and that need equipment and mobility

None

Correct! Wrong!

Q14-A patient with head injuries, glass gow coma scale 8, having mid face fracture, cyanoses and decreased breathing with frequent apnoea and low oxygen management, the method of airway maintenance is?

Oropharyngeal airway

Orotracheal airway

Nasotracheal airway

Cricothyrotomy

Correct! Wrong!

Q15-Paresthesia is seen with which of the following types of fractures;

Subcondylar

Zygomaticomaxillary

Coronoid process

Symphyseal

Correct! Wrong!

Q16-Pathognomic sign of mandibular fracture;

Malocclusion

Hematoma (Sublingual)

Tenderness and swelling at site

Inability to open mouth

Correct! Wrong!

Q17-Fracture of mandible distal to last tooth, treatment of choice;

Closed reduction with IMF

Open reduction with Bone plating

Open reduction with inerosseous wiring

Closed reduction with cap splint

Correct! Wrong!

Q18-An average patient with maxillofacial trauma require how much of daily sodium;

100 mmol

50-60 mmol

10 mmol

1000 mmol

Correct! Wrong!

Q19-With rigid internal fixation by bone plates it is expected that healing takes place by;

Primary healing

Fibrous healing

Scarification

Exuberent callus formation

Correct! Wrong!

Q20-In dislocated condylar fractures, the condyle is dislocated;

Medially due to attachment of medial pterygoid

Laterally due to attachment of lateral pterygoid

Laterally due to attachment of medial pterygoid

Medially due to attachment of lateral pterygoid

Correct! Wrong!

Q21-Battle sign is;

Subconjunctival ecchymosis

Sublingual ecchymosis

Palatal ecchymosis

Ecchymosis in the mastoid region

Correct! Wrong!

Q22-The safe dose of adrenaline in a patient with compromised cardiac condition is;

0.2 mg

0.02 mg

0.4 mg

0.04 mg

Correct! Wrong!

Q23-The malunited fracture of condyle with anatomical dysfunction that occurs after the development of condyle in Temporomandibular joint abnormality is termed as?

Mylarthrosis

Dysarthrosis

Pseudoarthrosis

Ankylosis

Correct! Wrong!

Q24-A male patient of 40 years got a blow on the angle region of mandible and he is asymptomatic. The X-rays of that region shows a radiopaque line in angle region. The inferior border shows a very sharp undercut on the inferior surface. This all feature shows?

Satural Diastasis

Overlapping sign

Separation sign

Non union

Correct! Wrong!

Q25-Zygomatic arch fractures are best seen in;

Submentovertex view

Occipitomental view

Lateral view of skull

Postero-anterior view of skull

Correct! Wrong!

Q26-Bilateral subconjunctival ecchymosis is not associated with;

Le Fort II fracture

Le Fort III fracture

Naso ethmoidal complex fracture

Le Fort I fracture

Correct! Wrong!

Q27-In Gillies temporal approach for reduction of zygomatic arch fracture, Rowes zygomatic elevator is placed between;

Superficial fascia and the temporal fascia

Between the temporal bone and the temporalis muscle

Between the temporal fascia and the temporalis muscle

Skin and superficial fascia

Correct! Wrong!

Q28-The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhea is;

Sphenoid sinus

Frontal sinus

Cribriform plate

Tegmen tympani

Correct! Wrong!

Q29-A patient with maxillofacial injuries should be carried in;

Supine position

Lateral position

Prone position

Sitting position

Correct! Wrong!

Q30-A patient with maxillofacial injuries should be carried in a supine position only when there is;

Spinal ,cervical injury

Bilateral parasymphysis fracture

Unconsciousness

Excessive mobility of fractured maxilla

Correct! Wrong!

Q31-Tongue-tie is indicated in;

Bilateral parasymphysis fracture

Unconscious patient

Chin has been destroyed in gunshot

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q32-Immediate management of nasal bleed in facial injuries is;

Reduction of nasal bones manually

Paraffin gauze packing

Positioning the patient in supine position

Positioning the patient in prone position

Correct! Wrong!

Q33-Glasgow Coma Scale is used;

To ascertain motor responsiveness

Verbal responsiveness

Eye response

To ascertain level of consciousness

Correct! Wrong!

Q34-Examination of pupils is of paramount importance in maxillofacial injuries because it indicates;

Trauma to brain

Trauma to optic tract

Progress of patient after trauma

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q35-The method commonly used to differentiate nasal discharge from CSF in fracture of middle third of face;

Examine level of glucose

Examine level of chlorides

Drying the discharge on a piece of cloth

Examining the level of proteins

Correct! Wrong!

Q36-Placing a nasal pack during nasal bleeding and CSF leak carry the danger of;

Fracture of ethmoidal plates

Redirecting the CSF to oropharynx

Meningitis

Redirecting CSF to orbit

Correct! Wrong!

Q37-A patient with maxillofacial injury complains of regurgitation, absence of gag reflex and weakening of voice, he may have;

Laryngeal trauma

Injury to middle cranial fossa

These symptoms are due to acute pain

Paralysis of IX N

Correct! Wrong!

Q38-The crystalloid which should be given first, after maxillofacial trauma;

Normal saline

5% dextrose

Ringer's lactase

10% dextrose

Correct! Wrong!

Q39-Hypovolumic shock develops after loss of;

10% blood

20% blood

30% blood

40% blood

Correct! Wrong!

Q40-Facial wounds can be considered for primary closure when they report within;

24 hrs

72 hrs

36 hrs

48 hrs

Correct! Wrong!

Q41-The most important step in suturing lacerated lip;

Apposition of muscular layer

Apposition of vermilion border

Apposition of mucosal layer

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q42-Failure of primary suturing occurs in facial wounds when;

Fine silk has not been used

Catgut has been used

Dead space develops

Continuous suturing is done

Correct! Wrong!

Q43-A patient presents with lateral subconjunctival haemorrhage. Infraorbital step and diplopia on right side with inability to open mouth, he can be having;

Fracture subcondylar right side

Fracture zygoma right side

Fracture Le Fort II right side

Fracture of floor of the floor

Correct! Wrong!

Q44-A patient with bilateral infraorbital step, paresthesia on left cheek region, with posterior gaging , and mobility of maxillary complex at nasal bones, it indicates;

Bilateral fracture zygoma

Bilateral fracture Le Fort II

Fracture zygoma left side with bilateral Le Fort II

Fracture bilateral sub condylar and fracture zygoma left side

Correct! Wrong!

Q45-Diplopia would result if fracture line around zygomatico-frontal suture passes;

Below the Whitnall's tubercle

Above the Whitnall's tubercle

Through zygomatico-frontal suture

Tearing the periosteum of orbital surface of zygomatic bone

Correct! Wrong!

Q46-A patient complains of diplopia following fracture zygoma, this is because of;

Fracture of orbital floor

Entrapment of medial rectus

Entrapment of superior oblique

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q47-Traumatic telecanthus is associated with;

Bilateral Le Fort II fracture

Nasoethmoidal injury

Fracture nasal bones

Bilateral fracture zygoma with enophthalmos

Correct! Wrong!

Q48-Guerin sign is presence of;

Ecchymosis at mastoid area

Ecchymosis at greater palatine foramen area

Ecchymosis in zygomatic butress area

Ecchymosis in sublingual area

Correct! Wrong!

Q49-Battle's sign associated with;

Fracture zygoma

Fracture anterior cranial fossa

Fracture middle cranial fossa

Fracture nasoethmoid

Correct! Wrong!

Q50-The differentiating feature of bleeding due in black eye and that due to fracture of orbit is/are;

Circumorbital ecchymosis in black eye develops rapidly

Posterior limit of subconjunctival haemorrhage cannot be seen in black eye

Posterior limit of subconjunctival haemorrhage can be seen in black eye

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q51-The typical 'cracked pot' sound on percussion of upper teeth is indicative of fracture;

Le Fort I

Le Fort II

Le Fort III

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q52-Guerin type fracture is same as fracture;

Le Fort I

Le Fort II

Supra zygomatic

Le Fort III

Correct! Wrong!

Q53-In Le Fort I fracture infraorbital rim is;

Bilaterally involved

Not involved

Involved medially

May or may not be involved

Correct! Wrong!

Q54-'Moon Face' appearance is not present in fracture;

Le Fort I

Le Fort II

Zygomatic complex

Le Fort III

Correct! Wrong!

Q55-Ecchymosis at zygomatic buttress would indicate fracture;

Le Fort I

Le Fort II

Zygoma

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q56-'Dish face' deformity commonly seen with fracture of middle third of face is because of;

Posterior and downward movement of maxilla

Anterior and forward movement of maxilla

Anterior and downward movement of maxilla

Nasal complex fracture

Correct! Wrong!

Q57-On palpation there is a step at bilateral infra-orbital margins and mobility of midface is detectable at nasal bridge a possible diagnosis would be fracture;

Le Fort I

Le Fort II

Le Fort III

Le Fort III and II

Correct! Wrong!

Q58-There is tenderness at ZF suture, with hooding of eyes and step at zygomatic arches with disturbed occlusion, a possible diagnosis would be;

Fracture zygoma and zygomatic arch

Fracture zygoma with paralysis of III nerve causing hooding

Fracture Le Fort II and fracture zygoma

Fracture Le Fort III

Correct! Wrong!

Q59-On moving the maxilla bimanually, movement is felt at ZF suture area in a case of middle third fracture of face, it is indicative of fracture;

Le Fort I

Le Fort II

Le Fort III

Zygoma

Correct! Wrong!

Q60-Step and mobility at infraorbital margin and step at ZF region would indicate fracture;

Le Fort III and Le Fort II

Le Fort II and zygoma

Le Fort III and zygoma

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q61-Fracture Le Fort II involve the following bones;

Frontal process of maxilla, nasal, lacrimal

Frontal process of maxilla, lacrimal ethmoidal

Frontal maxilla and nasal

Maxilla, frontal process of zygoma ,nasal and lacrimal

Correct! Wrong!

Q62-A patient presents with open bite on left side and with tenderness at nasal bones, it could be fracture;

Unilateral Le Fort I on right side

Subcondylar on left side and zygoma on right side

Le Fort II on right side

Zygoma on right side and subcondylar on right side

Correct! Wrong!

Q63-In a crown-root fracture of the tooth, if fracture is not below alveolar bone and pulp is not exposed the tooth should be;

Endodontically restored

Extracted

Only jacket crown given

Observed for 3-6 weeks

Correct! Wrong!

Q64-If there is root fracture in apical third of tooth without mobility;

Tooth should be extracted

Treated endodontically

No treatment and periodic review

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q65-In replanting an avulsed tooth;

It should be thoroughly made sterile

Root filling with apicoectomy should be done

There is failure due to external root resorption

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q66-High rate of fractures at canine region of mandible is due to;

Change of direction of forces occurring here

Long canine root

Lower border is thin in this area

Alveolus is thin in this area

Correct! Wrong!

Q67-Fracture of coronoid process can occur due to;

Trauma at chin region

Trauma from posterior region

Reflex muscular contraction

Lateral trauma

Correct! Wrong!

Q68-Respiratory embarrassment can occur in fracture;

Angle

Parasymphysis

Bilateral parasymphysis

Bilateral subcondylar

Correct! Wrong!

Q69-A patient reported with deviation of jaw to the right side on opening and bleeding from the right ear, is atypical picture of;

Left-subcondylar fracture

Right-subcondylar fracture

Right subcondylar with fracture of anterior cranial fossa

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q70-A patient with bilateral subcondylar fracture presents with;

Inability to open mouth

On opening mandible moves forward

Anterior open bite

Closed bite

Correct! Wrong!

Q71-The term vertical in 'vertical favourable' fractures connotes;

The fracture line running in vertical direction

The displacement of fracture is in vertical plane

The direction of view of the observer is in vertical direction

Fracture can be reduced vertically

Correct! Wrong!

Q72-A horizontally unfavourable fracture of angle of mandible runs from;

Lingual plate anteriorly backward through buccal plate posteriorly

Upper border downward and forward

Upper border downward and backward

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q73-Best radiograph for fractures of middle third of face;

Submentovertex

Reverse Towne's view

OPG

Occipitomental view

Correct! Wrong!

Q74-To find if fracture of angle mandible is vertically favourable or unfavourable the radiograph advised;

PA view mandible

Lateral oblique 30° mandible

Occipitomental view

Lateral oblique 15° mandible

Correct! Wrong!

Q75-Submentoovertex view is an ideal view for diagnosing fracture of;

Zygoma

Zygomatic arch

Horizontal fracture of mandible

Nasoethmoid region

Correct! Wrong!

Q76-There is absolute indication for extraction of a tooth which is present in the fracture line when there is;

Longitudinal fracture of tooth involving the root

Infected fracture line

Dislocation of tooth from its socket

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q77-Gunning type splints are used when patient is;

Edentulous in one jaw

Edentulous in both jaw

When vertical relations is not known

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q78-A 7 year old boy presented with fracture of left subcondylar region with occlusion undisturbed, the treatment would be;

Immobilization of 7 days

Immobilization for 14 days with intermittent active opening

No immobilization with restricted mouth opening for 10 days

No immobilization and active movement

Correct! Wrong!

Q79-A 32 year old female patient reported with bilateral subcondylar fracture with anterior open bite, the treatment would constitute;

IMF for 6 weeks

Distraction with rubber stoppers and anterior traction followed by IMF for 4-6 weeks

IMF for 4 weeks

Distraction with rubber stoppers and posterior traction followed by IMF for 4-6 weeks

Correct! Wrong!

Q80-While doing circum-mandibular wiring there are chances of injuring;

Facial nerve

Facial artery, vein

Epiglottis

Lingual nerve

Correct! Wrong!

Q81-The submandibular incision for approaching angle fracture is placed one finger breadth below the lower border of mandible;

To keep the incision line masked

To prevent injury to facial vessels

To prevent injury to marginal mandibular nerve

Access becomes easy

Correct! Wrong!

Q82-If fracture angle result following extraction of mandibular impacted 3rd molar the immediate treatment should be;

IMF only

Bone plating (under GA)

Superior border transosseous wiring and IMF

Transosseous wiring at the lower border and IMF

Correct! Wrong!

Q83-In old patients, open reduction and fixation should be done with great care to;

Prevent iatrogenic fracture of atrophic mandible

Detach minimum of periosteum

Prevent dislocation of condyle

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q84-Walsham's forceps are used for;

Disimpaction of maxilla

Reduction of maxilla fractures

Reduction of fracture nasal bones

Ash septal force

Correct! Wrong!

Q85-Following are the examples of rigid fixation;

Lateral frontal suspension

Extraskeletal pin fixation

Bone plating

B and C

Correct! Wrong!

Q86-Indirect reduction of fracture zygoma can be done by;

Gillies approach

Intraoral approach

Percutaneous approach

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q87-To fix a zygomatic fracture by open reduction following sites have to approached;

Zygomatic, frontal and infraorbital

Infraorbital and zygomaticotemporal

A and B

Zygmaticofrontal, zygomatic prominence and floor of orbit

Correct! Wrong!

Q88-The mini-bone plate system is a;

Compressive bone plating system

Monocortical system

Bicortical system

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q89-The best and most effective position (in mandible) of miniplate as proved by various experimental studies is;

Lower border of mandible

Buccoalveolar region

Linguoalveolar region

At a height midway between superior alveolar region and lower border of mandible

Correct! Wrong!

Q90-The minimum number of miniplates required in fractures anterior to canine in mandible is;

No plate is required since anterior region develops less amount of tension forces than in molar region

Only one plate as in molar region

Two plates

Three plates

Correct! Wrong!

Q91-Minimum number of screws required for fixation of miniplate are;

One screw on each side of fracture site

Two screws on each side of fracture site

Three screws on each side of fracture site

Two screws in smaller fragment and three screws in larger fragment

Correct! Wrong!

Q92-The optimum length of screw, for fixation of plate in mandible is;

2 mm

3 mm

4 mm

6 mm

Correct! Wrong!

Q93-In a fracture of mandible at the angle-region the placement of screws in proximal segment is in;

Sagittal plane

Horizontal plane

Such a close relation to teeth that injury to molar invariably occurs

No relation to teeth

Correct! Wrong!

Q94-To prevent injury to the apices of the teeth in mandible, the placement of miniplate is;

At the lower border of mandible

At a distance; twice the height of the clinical crown below the alveolar crest

Below the inferior alveolar canal

Not possible since alveolar bone bears the apices of the teeth

Correct! Wrong!

Q95-The most commonly injured tooth during the placement of miniplate for the fracture of mandible in anterior region may be;

Central incisor

Lateral incisor

Canine

1st premolar

Correct! Wrong!

Q96-In a fracture of symphysis region in the mandible;

Subapical and lower border plates should be fixed simultaneously

Subapical plate should be fixed followed by lower border plate

Lower border plate should be fixed first followed by subapical plate

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q97-In a fracture of mandible in elderly patients, fixation of plate is;

Submucosal

Supraperiosteal

Subperiosteal

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q98-The contraindication to miniplate along the line of osteosynthesis would be;

A comminuted fracture

An infected fracture site

A fracture in 10 year old

When more than one fracture site exists in mandible

Correct! Wrong!

Q99-Stress shielding effect is seen in;

Miniplating

Compression bone plating

Lag screw

Transosseous wiring

Correct! Wrong!

Q100-Anterior open bite occurs in fracture of;

Symphysis

Bilateral angles

Bilateral condyles

Unilateral condyle

Correct! Wrong!

Q101-During compression bone plating which type of healing would not be observed;

Contact healing

Gap healing

Primary healing

Secondary healing

Correct! Wrong!

Q102-The spherical gliding principle is a feature of;

Miniplates

Luhr plating

ASIF plating

Lag screws

Correct! Wrong!

Q103-In Luhr system of plating, the two individual compression screws move through;

1 mm

1.6 mm

3.2 mm

4 mm

Correct! Wrong!

Q104-The whole of middle third of face can be approached by;

Infraorbital incisions

Bicoronal flap

Alkayat and Bramley approach

Transconjunctival approach

Correct! Wrong!

Q105-Epiphora results due to;

Blockage of lacrimal gland canaliculi

Blockage of nasolacrimal duct

Overactivity of lacrimal glands

Evulsion of palpebral conjunctiva

Correct! Wrong!

Q106-The most common site of mandible, which shows non union or delayed union after IMF is;

Angle

Body

Symphysis

Ramus

Correct! Wrong!

Q107-Acceptable treatment modality for fracture mandible in 8 year old is;

Transosseous wiring since IMF cannot be done

IMF for 3 weeks

Circum-mandibular splinting

AO bone plating

Correct! Wrong!

Q108-Risdon wiring is indicated for;

Body fracture

Angle fracture

Symphysis fracture

Subcondylar fracture

Correct! Wrong!

Q109-A 25-year old patient with lefort-II, lefort-III and nasoethmoidal fracture with intermaxillary fixation done is best intubation by?

Nasal

Oral

Submental

All of the above

Correct! Wrong!

Q110-Most common complication that occur in open reduction of fracture is?

Infection

Non-union

Fibrous union

Hemorrhage

Correct! Wrong!

Q111-Lefort-I fracture is characterized by?

Bleeding from the ear

Bleeding from the maxillary antrum

Anterior open bite

Angle Class II skeletal relationship on fracture site

Correct! Wrong!

Q112-Non-union of fracture is due to?

Mobility of fracture site

Bone loss due to infection

Early mobilization

None of above

Correct! Wrong!

Q113-All of the following are present in pterygomandibular space except?

Nerve to mylohyoid

Chorda tympani

Long buccal nerve

Nerve to pterygoid

Correct! Wrong!

Q114-In asthmatic patient, treatment is usually done in?

Morning

Afternoon

Evening

Not done at all

Correct! Wrong!

Q115-Which of the following can be used to stop bleeding from extraction socket?

Vitamin K

Suturing of the wound margin

Bone wax

None

Correct! Wrong!

Q116-In which mandibular fracture the tongue fall backwards?

Symphysis fracture

Bilateral mandibular body fracture

Bilateral parasymphysis fracture

Bilateral angle fracture

Correct! Wrong!

Q117-A patient with condylar fracture the occlusion is normal with normal mouth opening. The best treatment is?

IMF for 3 weeks

IMF for 5-6 weeks

Conservative treatment, close observation & soft diet & return to as normal function as possible

Open reduction and bone plating

Correct! Wrong!

Q118-Which of the following is a direct interdental wiring method?

Gilmer's wiring method

Col stout's wiring method

Ivy islet wiring method

Risdon's wiring method

Correct! Wrong!

Q119-The sub-conjunctival hemorrhage remains bright red in color for a long time because?

Permeability of the conjunctive to oxygen

Natural color of blood

Lack of drainage of the pooled blood

None

Correct! Wrong!

Q120-Which treatment plan will leads to rigid fixation of the fracture site?

Direct interdental wiring

Miniplate osteosynthesis

Eccentric compression plate osteosynthesis

IMF

Correct! Wrong!

Q121-In CPR the sternum should be depressed at a rate of?

1 inch per 1 second

2 inch per 1 second

1 inch per second

2 inch per 5 second

Correct! Wrong!

Q122-In blow-out fracture which of the following is seen?

Enophthalmos

Exophthalmos

Bulbar Hemorrhage

Conjunctival hemorrhage

Correct! Wrong!

Q123-Following bilateral mandibular fracture in the canine region (parasymphysis) the following muscles will tend to pull the mandible back?

Anterior belly of diagastric genihyoid and geniglossus

Genihyoid geniglossus and mylohyoid

Mylohyoid, hyoglossus and sternohyoid

Hyoglossus, mylohyoid and genioglossus

Correct! Wrong!

Q124-All of the following are features of mandibular fracture except?

Malocclusion and gagging of occlusion

Parasthesia lip

Fractured ends are prevented from dislocation by muscles

Are usually compound

Correct! Wrong!

Q125-Patient with unfavorable fracture of the angle of mandible is best treated by?

Closed reduction with IMF

Closed reduction with cap splint

Circummandibular wiring

Open reduction with bone plate fixation

Correct! Wrong!

Q126-Incision in hair line at 45° to zygomatic arch best describe as?

Gilli's incision

Alkymal-bramly incision

Risdon's incision

Moore's incision

Correct! Wrong!

Q127-Hemorrhage secondary to heparin administration can be corrected by administration of?

Vitamin K

Whole blood

Protamine

Ascorbic acid

Correct! Wrong!

Q128-Which of the following is correct reason of facial nerve injury during forceps delivery in labour?

The mastoid process is absent at birth

The parotid gland is in developing stage

The beak of the forceps engage the main trunk of facial nerve

The sublingual hematoma during delivery causes neuropraxia

Correct! Wrong!

Q129-During CPR, the chest compression should be;

2 inch/seconds

1 inch/seconds

2 inch/5 seconds

1 inch/5 seconds

Correct! Wrong!

Q130-In case of suspected fractures, area demonstrating increases in radiopacity is described by?

Separation sign

Overlapping sign

Corman's sign

Battle's sign

Correct! Wrong!

Q131-The muscle under the influence of which, the superior fragment of condyle in a condylar neck of fracture is displaced anteriorly and medially is;

Medial pterygoid

Lateral pterygoid

Masseter

Temporalis

Correct! Wrong!

Q132-The radiographic view of choice for diagnosing horizontally favourable and unfavourable fracture is;

OPG

Occlusal

Lateral oblique view

Transpharyngeal

Correct! Wrong!

Q133-The radiographic view of choice for demonstrating a nasal fracture is;

Reverse towne's

PA view

True lateral

OPG

Correct! Wrong!

Q134-In a patient with Le fort II, Le fort III and naso-ethmoid fracture, what is the choice of intubation?

Oral

Oral and nasal

Nasal

Submental

Correct! Wrong!

Q135-The intercanthal distance suggestive of traumatic telecanthus is;

30 mm

32 mm

25 mm

40 mm

Correct! Wrong!

Q136-Which of the following is used for 'figure of eight' wiring for stabilization of subluxated teeth in alveolar injuries;

0.23 mm stainless steel wire

0.35 mm stainless steel wire

0.45 mm stainless steel wire

0.55 mm stainless steel wire

Correct! Wrong!